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If I represent myself and present a purchase purposal to the seller's realtor to buy the house shouldn't they send me in writing the seller's answer? I did this recently and the seller's realtor phoned me and gave me the seller's answer and never did put it in writing. I always thought this had to be done via paper trail. The seller's realtor refused to give me the 3% they would have to give my realtor had I had one. I asked this be given toward my closing cost in lieu of them having to split the 6% fee the seller was paying for representation. |
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You don't way what the seller's answer was, but if it was an acceptance, it should be in writing, otherwise it isn't legally binding. If it was a refusal, those are seldom done in writing. The seller often just lets the offer expire unanswered.
I'm not sure whether Texas is one of the states that prohibits sharing of commission with anyone who isn't licensed, but at any rate, the seller is the one to decide whether concessions in the form of help with closing costs are given to the buyer. |
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Edith
Originally published on October 21, 2007 |
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